Thomas Aquinas, Commentary on the Gospel of John 6, l.6, n.962, trans. James A. Weisheipl, OP
“If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread which I will give is my flesh, for the life of the world” (Jn 6:52).
The truth of this sacrament is indicated when he says, is my flesh. He does not say, “This signifies my flesh,” but it is my flesh, for in reality that which is taken is truly the body of Christ: “Who will give us his flesh so that we may be satisfied?” as we read in Job (31:3 1). Since the whole Christ is contained in this sacrament, why did he just say, this is my flesh ? To answer this, we should note that in this mystical sacrament the whole Christ is really contained: but his body is there by virtue of the conversion; while his soul and divinity are present by natural concomitance. For if we were to suppose what is really impossible, that is, that the divinity of Christ is separated from his body, then his divinity would not be present in this sacrament. Similarly, if someone had consecrated during the three days Christ was dead, his soul would not have been present there [in the sacrament], but his body would have been, as it was on the cross or in the tomb. Since this sacrament is the commemoration of our Lord’s passion—according to “As often as you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the death of the Lord” (1 Cor 11:26)—and the passion of Christ depended on his weakness—according to “He was crucified through weakness” (2 Cor 13:4)—he rather says, is my flesh, to suggest the weakness through which he died, for “flesh” signifies weakness.
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Return to Lesson 19: Is the Catholic Eucharist in the Bible?